I have another question for a legal mind... AnneM
A Robert Gillies, merchant in Brechin, died on the 28 April 1806. His estate was given to his uncle Thomas Gillies Esquire of Balmaquan ("Uncle and Heir of Conquest of the said defunct in terms of the act 1695 Cap 24 Anent Apparent heirs entering to their predecessors Cum beneficio Inventory.") At the end of the inventory it also states that Robert's uncle William Gilies, Corn Merchant in London is also Apparent Heir and he swears "That to the best of the Deponents knowledge the within is a just and true Inventory of the Heritable Estate which belonged to the said deceased Robert Gillies his Nephew in so far as he has right thereto as heir of line to his said Nephew.". This Robert had a number of aunts and uncles (and at least one grandmother) alive at his death, although they are not mentioned in the document. Both his parents predeceased him, however.
My question is this: Does the fact that his Uncles were Heirs definitely mean that he had no closer relative living at that time? (Actually, I suspect he had a 3 month old illegitimate son at the time of his death, since later an uncle and an aunt left him legacies, but I assume he didn't count in law). What I am really interested in, is whether or not he had living siblings at the time. Would this kind of disposition of his estate mean for sure that no siblings survived him?
I found "Heir of Conquest" in the Oxford English Dictionary online and it seems to mean only that the estate was bought, not inherited, by Robert... so that appears to be neither here nor there in terms of my question.
If anyone can shed some light on this I would be very grateful.
Sarah